Does sinx/cosx + cosx/sinx = 1?

1 Answer
Apr 15, 2015

No; in general
(sin(x))/(cos(x)) +(cos(x))/(sin(x)) != 1

Consider, for example, the case of x= pi/4

sin(pi/4)=cos(pi/4) (=1/sqrt(2))

(sin(pi/4))/(cos(pi/4)) = 1

and

(cos(pi/4))/(sin(pi/4)) = 1

So
(sin(pi/4))/(cos(pi/4)) + (cos(pi/4))/(sin(pi/4)) = 2 !=1