How do you find the interval of existence for the real function ln(1+x/(ln(1-x)))ln(1+xln(1x))?

3 Answers
Jun 21, 2016

The domain is (0, 1)(0,1)

Explanation:

The domain of the Real valued function of Reals ln(x)ln(x) is (0, oo)(0,)

So looking at the denominator ln(1-x)ln(1x) first, we require:

1 - x > 01x>0.

Add xx to both sides to find 1 > x1>x, that is x < 1x<1

Additionally we require ln(1-x) != 0ln(1x)0 in order that the denominator be non-zero. Hence x != 0x0.

So x in (-oo, 0) uu (0, 1)x(,0)(0,1)

In order that 1+x/(ln(1-x)) > 01+xln(1x)>0, we require:

x/(ln(1-x)) > -1xln(1x)>1

Split into cases:

Case x in (0, 1)x(0,1)

Then 1-x in (0, 1)1x(0,1) and ln(1-x) in (-oo, 0)ln(1x)(,0)

Multiply both sides of the inequality by ln(1-x)ln(1x) and reverse the inequality (since ln(1-x) < 0ln(1x)<0) to get:

x < -ln(1-x)x<ln(1x)

This inequality holds in the whole interval (0, 1)(0,1). I may prove later, but here's a plot for now:

graph{(y+ln(1-x))(y-x)=0 [-1.895, 3.105, -0.68, 1.818]}

Case x in (-oo, 0)x(,0)

In this case:

1 - x > 11x>1

So:

ln(1-x) > 0ln(1x)>0

Multiply both sides of the required inequality by ln(1-x)ln(1x) to get:

x > -ln(1-x)x>ln(1x)

This is false for all x < 0x<0 so there is no x < 0x<0 in the domain.

Proof

What is the slope of -ln(1-x)ln(1x)?

d/(dx) -ln(1-x) = 1/(1-x)ddxln(1x)=11x

So when x in (0, 1)x(0,1) we find:

1/(1-x) > 111x>1

and when x in (-oo, 0)x(,0) we find:

1/(1-x) < 111x<1

When x = 0x=0, -ln(1-x) = -ln(1) = 0ln(1x)=ln(1)=0

So -ln(1-x)ln(1x) is steeper than y=xy=x when x > 0x>0 and less steep when x < 0x<0. They both pass through (0, 0)(0,0).

Jun 21, 2016

log_e(1+x/(log_e(1-x)))loge(1+xloge(1x))

is feasible only for 0 < x < 10<x<1

Explanation:

log_e(1+x/(log_e(1-x)))=log_e((log_e(1-x)+x)/(log_e(1-x)))loge(1+xloge(1x))=loge(loge(1x)+xloge(1x))

The feasibility condition is

(log_e(1-x)+x)/(log_e(1-x)) > 0loge(1x)+xloge(1x)>0

1)1) For 0 < x < 10<x<1 we have the condition

log_e(1-x)+x < 0->log_e (1/(e^x(1-x))) > 0loge(1x)+x<0loge(1ex(1x))>0

or 1/(e^x(1-x)) > 1->e^{-x} > 1-x1ex(1x)>1ex>1x

but y=1-xy=1x is tangent to y=e^{-x}y=ex at x = 0x=0 and truly

1-x <= e^{-x} forall x in RR

2)Considering now the condition 1 < x < oo, the feasibility condition is

log_e(1-x)+x > 0->log_e(e^x(1-x)) > 0

or

1-x>e^{-x}

but y=1-x is tangent to y=e^{-x} at x = 0 and truly

1-x <= e^{-x} forall x in RR

3) For -oo > x > 0 we have

1+x/log_e(1+x) < 0 because delta/log_e(1+delta) >=1

Concluding,

log_e(1+x/(log_e(1-x)))

is feasible only for 0 < x < 1

Jun 22, 2016

( 0, 1 ).

Explanation:

ln(1-x) exists, for x in [-1, 1)#.

ln(1+x/(ln(1-x))) exists, for x/(ln(1-x)) in (-1, 1].

Now, as x to 0, the given function to -oo.

The proof is a tribute to L'Hospital rule..

For x < 0, ln(1-x)>0 and x/ln(1-x)<-1.

So, the argument for the given ln function becomes negative. The

function does not exist.

Thus, the answer is (0, 1).. .