Why f(x)=ln(xx) is not the same as g(x)=xln(x)?

There's a property in logaritms that says:
klogb(a)=logb(ak)

so g(x)=xln(x) should be the same as f(x)=ln(xx), but if we substitute some point we can easly see that it's not true, for example when x=2 fuction g(x) has no solutions but fuction f(x) does:
g(2)=2ln(2)=Undefined
f(2)=ln((2)2)=ln(14)1.386

Why is that?

1 Answer
Nov 22, 2017

x>0

Explanation:

This is a very good question. So, the function h(x)=lnx is defined when x>0

Having this in mind you cannot replace the value for x=2
in any of the 2 functions. Having put for x=2 in f in the first place is a faulty thinking because for that value its undefined in either case.

For x>0 you can see that you get the same values

example: lnxk , for x=2,k=2n>0ork=2n+1 undefined