Question about inverse? the function f(x) = x^2*sin 1/x for x not equal to zero (0) . find inverse of the f(x) for x not equal zero

1 Answer
Jun 26, 2018

The function doesn't have an inverse.

Explanation:

I'm pretty sure I already answered this question already, but I'll do it again.

A function f is inversible if and only if it is injective. Basically, it is a "one-to-one" function, meaning there exists no two elements in the domain of f that are mapped to the same element in the codomain of f.

Let f:XY. Below is an example of an injective function.

![https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Injective_function](useruploads.socratic.org)

A function is inversible only if it is injective due to the definition of a function.

A function exists if there is no element a in its domain such that f(a) is multivalued. As such, if f is a non-injective function then there must exist a and b so that f(a)=f(b)=α. The inverse of f, f1, will map α to both a and b, thus making it not a function.

In our particular case, f(x)=x2sin(1x).

Let δ=1π then ε=1π:

f(δ)=(1π)2sin(11π)=(1π)2sinπ=0

f(ε)=(1π)2sin(11π)=(1π)2sin(π)=0

As such, f is not injective and thus doesn't have an inverse.