If two circles #x^2+y^2+2ax+c^2=0# and #x^2+y^2+2by+c^2=0# touch each other externally then prove that #1/(a^2)+1/(b^2)=1/(c^4)# ?
2 Answers
Please refer to a Proof in Explanation.
Explanation:
Let the given circles be,
Clearly, the centre
Analogously for
Given that
Evidently,
Utilising
Dividing throughout by
Spread the Joy of Maths!
Please see the explanation below.
Explanation:
The first circle is
The center is
The second circle is
The center is
If the circles touch each other externally, then
Squaring both sides,
Squaring both sides
Dividing by
Are you sure of the