Question #c2b2d

Question

Question #c2b2d

1 Answer

Impact of this question

1699 views around the world

You can reuse this answer
Creative Commons License

Answer 1 · 2017-04-15T09:35:02

From Lorentz force Equation we know that total force $\to F$ $vec F$ experienced by a charged particle, having charge $q$ $q$ and velocity $\to v$ $vec v$ , in an electric field $\to E$ $vecE$ and magnetic field $\to B$ $vecB$ is

$\to F = q (\to E + \to v \times \to B)$ $vecF=q(vecE+vecvxxvecB)$

In this case, the electron of charge $e$ $e$ is stationary in a magnetic field. There is no electric field. As such first term vanishes.
Also we have $\to v = 0$ $vecv=0$ . Consequently the cross product of vectors velocity and magnetic field becomes $0$ $0$ .
We have
$\to F = e (0 \times \to B)$ $vecF=e(0xxvecB)$
$\to F = 0 .$ $vecF=0.$

In the absence of any force stationary electron remains stationary.

Science

Math

Humanities

... and beyond

Question #c2b2d

1 Answer

Related questions

Impact of this question