Question #7e22e

1 Answer
Gió
Aug 1, 2016

Yes, because it measures the change of velocity with time:

Explanation:

Because acceleration is a way to measure the change of velocity with time.
So, velocity is measured in #m/s# and its change with time will be: #(m/s)/s#
Rearranging it you get: #m/s*1/s=m/s^2#.

As an example of the rate of change of velocity consider the following:
You can have a Fiat Panda and a Ferrari; both are able to reach a velocity of #100(km)/h# so...why it is better to have a Ferrari? Because despite the fact of reaching the same velocity of a Fiat Panda the Ferrari does it in a smaller time (or, a better #"velocity"/"time"# ratio)!
Let say, the Ferrari takes #2sec# to reach #100(km)/h# while the Fiat Panda (probably) #3 "minutes"# (thowing it from a cliff!)!

Hope it helps!

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