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Answer 1 · 2017-04-29T12:41:58

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In first case, because $L = \frac{λ_{1}}{2}$ $L = lambda_1/2$ , the fund freq is $f_{1} = \frac{v}{λ_{1}} = \frac{v}{2 L}$ $f_1 = v/ lambda_1 = v/(2L)$

In second case, because $\frac{3 L}{4} = \frac{λ_{2}}{4}$ $(3L)/4 = lambda_2/4$ , the fund freq is $f_{2} = \frac{v}{λ_{2}} = \frac{v}{3 L}$ $f_2 = v/ lambda_2 = v/(3L)$

So $f_{2} = \frac{2}{3} f_{1} = 260 H z$ $f_2 = 2/3 f_1 = 260 Hz$

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