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Question #99c3d

1 Answer

Oct 19, 2017

Yes, #f(0)=1#

Explanation:

Since #f(x)=e^x#

For #f(0)#, substitute every #x# with 0.

#f(0)=e^0#

Since any base to the power of zero, except 0, is equal to 1.

#implies f(0)=1#

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