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Answer 1 · 2017-09-21T17:13:03

#MT^(-2)A^(-1)#

Magnetic induction is defined from the Lorentz force law.

In scalar form,

#F = qvB#
#implies [B] = [[F]]/([q][v])#

Now,

#[F] = MLT^(-2)#
#[q] = AT#
#[v] = LT^(-1)#

Substituting these,

#[B] = (MLT^(-2))/(ATLT^(-1))#
#implies [B] = MT^(-2)A^(-1)#