Question #788a3

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Question #788a3

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Answer 1 · 2017-05-24T19:41:19

By derivation.
Start with $cos^2(x)+sin^2(x)=1$
Divide both sides by $cos^2(x)$
The result is: $1 + sin^2(x)/cos^2(x) = 1/cos^2(x)$
This the same as the given equation.

Answer 2 · 2017-05-24T19:52:01

Use trig properties.

Explanation:

We know that:

$1+tan^2theta=sec^2theta$

We also know that:

$sectheta=1/costheta$

Transforming the second property listed, we get:

$sectheta=1/costheta$
$(sectheta)^2=(1/costheta)^2$

Then applying the first property:

$1+tan^2theta=sec^2theta=1/cos^2theta$

$QED$

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Question #788a3

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