Question #3ded9 Calculus Limits Intemediate Value Theorem 1 Answer Wataru Apr 1, 2017 Let f(x)=x−cosx. We know that f is continuous on [0,π2] since it is the difference of two continuous functions x and cosx, and f(0)=−1<0<π2=f(π2). By Intermediate Value Theorem, there exists c∈(0,π2) s.t. f(c)=c−cos(c)=0, which means that c=cos(c). Hence, x=cosx has a solution c∈(0,π2). Answer link Related questions How do you verify the intermediate value theorem over the interval [0,5], and find the c that is... How do you verify the intermediate value theorem over the interval [0,3], and find the c that is... How do you verify the intermediate value theorem over the interval [0,3], and find the c that is... How do you verify the intermediate value theorem over the interval [5/2,4], and find the c that... See all questions in Intemediate Value Theorem Impact of this question 2990 views around the world You can reuse this answer Creative Commons License